Portfolio Splitting and the Kelly Criterion
Suppose the Knicks play the Spurs tomorrow.
A bookmaker believes $P(\text{Knicks win}) = p$. He sells two fractional contracts, each fairly priced under that belief:
- A $\$1$ Knicks contract that pays $\frac{1}{p}$ if the Knicks win.
- A $\$1$ Spurs contract that pays $\frac{1}{1-p}$ if the Spurs win.
(Note: Zero vig $\implies$ fair value = $1)
A gambler believes $P(\text{Knicks win}) = q > p$. He has just $1 but wants to grow it aggressively, so he spends:
- $\$q$ on the Knicks.
- $\$(1-q)$ on the Spurs.
(This is equivalent to wagering $a = \frac{q-p}{1-p}$ on the Knicks and leaving the rest in cash.)
As the game is about to start, the gambler is feeling good. His expected log-wealth is:
$$E_q[\log(W)] = q \log\left(\frac{q}{p}\right) + (1-q) \log\left(\frac{1-q}{1-p}\right)$$Does this formula look familiar?
If you’ve taken a course in statistics or machine learning, you will recognize this as the Kullback-Leibler (KL) Divergence, denoted as $D_{\text{KL}}(q \parallel p)$.
Interpretation
- The Kelly Criterion: The $q, 1-q$ split is algebraically the same as staking $f^* = \frac{q-p}{1-p}$ on the Knicks per the Kelly criterion.
- Expected Log-Wealth: The highest possible expected log‑return is the Kullback-Leibler divergence between the gambler’s beliefs and the market’s.
- Actual Payoff: After the game, his actual wealth-multiplier equals the likelihood ratio ($\frac{q}{p}$ or $\frac{1-q}{1-p}$).
Finger-Exercises
Portfolio Replication: Convince yourself that wagering $a = \frac{q-p}{1-p}$ on the Knicks and keeping the rest in cash perfectly replicates the gambler’s $q, 1-q$ split portfolio.
The Bookie’s Perspective: Under the bookie’s beliefs, show that the gambler’s portfolio has fair expected value:
\[ E_p[W] = 1. \]But also show that the bookie’s expected log-wealth (under the bookie’s beliefs) is:
\[ \begin{aligned} E_p[\log W] &= p \log\left(\frac{q}{p}\right) + (1-p)\log\left(\frac{1-q}{1-p}\right) \\ &= -D_{\text{KL}}(p \parallel q) \\ &\leq 0. \end{aligned} \]How can both statements be true? What, exactly, is the bookie happy about?